COMPTIA CAS-005 EXAM PAPERS, UPDATED CAS-005 DUMPS

CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Papers, Updated CAS-005 Dumps

CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Papers, Updated CAS-005 Dumps

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 2
  • Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 3
  • Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
Topic 4
  • Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.

CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q181-Q186):

NEW QUESTION # 181
A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding lo deploy a CASB solution Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?

  • A. Corporate devices cannot receive certificates when not connected to on-premises devices
  • B. Privacy compliance obligations are bypassed when using a user-based deployment.
  • C. The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible
  • D. Protecting and regularly rotating API secret keys requires a significant time commitment

Answer: C

Explanation:
A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here's why:
Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.
Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.
Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies Gartner CASB Market Guide


NEW QUESTION # 182
Users are willing passwords on paper because of the number of passwords needed in an environment. Which of the following solutions is the best way to manage this situation and decrease risks?

  • A. implementing an SSO solution and integrating with applications
  • B. Requiring users to use an open-source password manager
  • C. Implementing an MFA solution to avoid reliance only on passwords
  • D. Increasing password complexity to require 31 least 16 characters

Answer: A

Explanation:
Implementing a Single Sign-On (SSO) solution and integrating it with applications is the best way to manage the situation and decrease risks.
Reduced Password Fatigue: SSO allows users to log in once and gain access to multiple applications and systems without needing to remember and manage multiple passwords. This reduces the likelihood of users writing down passwords.
Improved Security: By reducing the number of passwords users need to manage, SSO decreases the attack surface and potential for password-related security breaches. It also allows for the implementation of stronger authentication methods.
User Convenience: SSO improves the user experience by simplifying the login process, which can lead to higher productivity and satisfaction.


NEW QUESTION # 183
A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?

  • A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers
  • B. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program
  • C. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
  • D. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance

Answer: B

Explanation:
Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:
Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.
Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early.
Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.
Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:
A: Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.
B: Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.
C: Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance:
This is important but only covers the integration phase, not the entire supply chain.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-161, "Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations" ISO/IEC 27036-1:2014, "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security for supplier relationships"


NEW QUESTION # 184
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'

  • A. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier.
  • B. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed
  • C. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.
  • D. The HSM does not support sealing storage
  • E. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
* Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
* Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
* Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
* A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
* B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
* C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
* E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
* "BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation


NEW QUESTION # 185
A company receives several complaints from customers regarding its website. An engineer implements a parser for the web server logs that generates the following output:

which of the following should the company implement to best resolve the issue?

  • A. CDN
  • B. IDS
  • C. WAF
  • D. NAC

Answer: A

Explanation:
The table indicates varying load times for users accessing the website from different geographic locations.
Customers from Australia and India are experiencing significantly higher load times compared to those from the United States. This suggests that latency and geographical distance are affecting the website's performance.
* A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): While an IDS is useful for detecting malicious activities, it does not address performance issues related to latency and geographical distribution of content.
* B. CDN (Content Delivery Network): A CDN stores copies of the website's content in multiple geographic locations. By serving content from the nearest server to the user, a CDN can significantly reduce load times and improve user experience globally.
* C. WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but does not improve performance related to geographical latency.
* D. NAC (Network Access Control): NAC solutions control access to network resources but are not designed to address web performance issues.
Implementing a CDN is the best solution to resolve the performance issues observed in the log output.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "CDN: Content Delivery Networks Explained" by Akamai Technologies
* NIST SP 800-44, "Guidelines on Securing Public Web Servers"


NEW QUESTION # 186
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